Which muscle would be considered overactive leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?

1. A client’s shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?

   Mid/Lower Trapezius

2. A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?

   Balance- Power Exercise

3. A prolonged intolerable stressor that produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury is called?

   Exhaustion

4. seated cable row is an example of which level of training in the NASM OPT model?

   Strength

5. Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following?

   The 2nd number or Bottom number

6. During the pushing assessment, you notice your client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise would you perform with them?

   Ball Cobra

7. For a client who demonstrates their low back arching as a movement compensation, which method of cardio would you initially avoid?

   bicycles or steppers

8. How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last?

   5-10 Minutes

9. How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release?

   30 seconds minimum

10. If a client's feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive?

    • Medial Gastrocnemius
    • Medial Hamstring Complex
    • Gracilis
    • Sartorius
    • Popliteus

11. In a client with Lower Crossed Syndrome, Which of the muscles is lengthened?

    • Anterior Tibialis
    • Posterior Tibialis
    • Gluteus Maximus
    • Gluteus Medius
    • Transversus abdominis
    • Internal Oblique

12. In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the muscles is shortened?

    • Upper Trapezius
    • Levator Scapulae
    • Sternocleidomastoid
    • Scalenes
    • Latissimus Dorsi
    • Teres Major
    • Subscapularis
    • Pectoralis Major/Minor

13. Increasing weight with each set is an example of which type of Resistance-training system?

    Pyramid System

14. The Gluteus Maximus is responsible for?

    Concentrically accelerates Hip Extension and External rotation

15. The Latissimus Dorsi is responsible for concentrically accelerating which movement?

    Concentrically accelerates shoulder extension, adduction and internal rotation

16. the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns is known as?

    Relative Flexibility

17. What assessment is used to assess upper extremity agility and stability?

    Davies Test

18. What effect do beta-blockers have on a client’s blood pressure?

    Decrease

19. What exercise is considered a total-body strength level exercise?

    Squat, Curl to two-arm press

20. What is a potential drawback to the horizontal loading system?

    The amount of rest time which can often be more time than the actual workout itself.

21. What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper extremity strength assessment?

    5-10% of initial load

22. What is the best time of day to have your client measure their resting heart rate?

    Right upon waking in the morning.

23. What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm dumbbell chest press?

    Ball Dumbbell chest press.

24. What is the most appropriate heart rate percentage range for a client just starting into zone 3?

    86-90%

25. What is the next immediate progression for the ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?

    Alternating-arm

26. What type of exercise is a single-leg power Step-up categorized as?

    Plyometric-Power

27. When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment from the lateral view, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints are you observing?

    Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex

28. When determining a client’s heart rate for zone 2, which equation would you use?

    (220- age) X 0.76-0.85

29. When first starting out with a brand new client, which of the following training systems is most appropriate?

    The single-set system

30. When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, immediately after a barbell squat, which exercise would you perform?

    Seated Row

31. When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscle?

    • Adductor Complex
    • Biceps Femoris(short head)
    • Tensor Fascia Latae
    • Vastus Lateralis

32. When performing the overhead squat assessment, your client's arms fall forward. Which muscle would be considered most likely overactive?

    • Latissimus Dorsi
    • Teres Major
    • Pectoralis Major/Minor

33. When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?

    two legs

34. When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?

    Balance Strength Exercises

35. When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?

    a Dorsiflexed position

36. When training in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance, what is the main method of progression?

    Proprioception

37. Which muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating plantarflexion

    • Posterior Tibialis
    • Soleus
    • Gastrocnemius

38. List core Stabilization exercises appropriate for a new client?

    • Marching
    • Floor Bridge
    • Floor Prone Cobra
    • Prone Iso-ab

39. Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?

    • Standing cable row
    • Ball Dumbbell row

40. What is a good example of a stabilization level exercise

    Multiplanar Step-up Balance, Curl, to Overhead Press.

41. What is an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill?

    • One-ins
    • Two-ins
    • Side Shuffle
    • In-In-Out-Out
    • In-In-Out(Zigzag)
    • Ali Shuffle

42. Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted, internally rotated knees?

    Pronation Distortion Syndrome

43. What is considered a Core-Power Exercise?

    Rotation Chest pass

44. What Is considered Subjective Information?

    • General And Medical history
    • Occupation
    • Lifestyle
    • Medical And Personal Information

45. What is a good example of Zone 3 Cardio?

    Sprinting

46. What are some of the muscles in the Global Stabilization System?

    • Quadratus lumborum
    • Psoas Major
    • External oblique
    • Portions of Internal Oblique
    • Rectus Abdominis
    • Gluteus Medius
    • Adductor Complex

47. What are muscles involved in the Local Stabilization System?

    • Transversus abdominis
    • Internal Oblique
    • Lumbar Multifidus
    • Pelvic Floor muscles
    • Diaphragm

48. What is the movement system?

    Includes muscles that attach the spine and/or pelvis to the extremities

49. What are muscles involved in the movement system?

    • Latissimus dorsi
    • Hip Flexors
    • Hamstring Complex
    • Quadriceps

50. Which training system can be just as beneficial as traditional forms of cardiorespiratory training?

    Circuit Training

51. You have a client working in Phase 3: Hypertrophy, what type of flexibility would you use?

    Active Flexibility

52. You observe that your client's knee moves inward during the single-leg squat assessment. What muscle would you foam roll and static-Stretch?

    • Adductors
    • TFL/IT band
    • Static Supine biceps femoris stretch
    • Static Standing TFL stretch

53. What zone would a client start in if they had an average score on the YMCA step test?

    Zone 2(76-85%HR max)

54. How do Blood vessels work?

    • Transporting blood
    • Arteries, carry the blood away from the heart, forming smaller arterioles, eventually into microscopic vessels called capillaries. Vessels that collect blood from capillaries (where supplies such as oxygen, nutrients hormones and waste products are exchanged) between tissues. are called venules, that progressively merge with other venules to form veins that transport all the bloood back to hte heart

55. Define Cardiac Output

    Heart Rate X Stroke Volume = The overall performance of the heart

56. How do the heart Atria function:

    Atria gather blood returning to the heart. The right Atrium gather deoxygenated blood returning from the entire body and the left atrium gathers oxygenated blood from the lungs.

57. What are important functions of the skeletal system:

    • Provides shape and form to our bodies
    • Supporting, Protecting and allowing bodily movement
    • Producing blood for the body
    • Storing minerals

58. Primary function of the muscle system:

    To move the skeletal system

59. During a Fitness assessment, on the anterior view, when the feet turn out What are the probable overactive muscles?

    • Soleus
    • Lateral Gastrocnemius
    • Biceps Femoris(Short Head)

60. During a Fitness assessment, on the anterior view When the feet turn out, what are the probable underactive muscles?

    • Medial Gastrocnemius
    • Medial Hamstring Complex
    • Gracilis
    • Sartorius
    • Popliteus

61. During a Fitness assessment, on the anterior view When the feet turn out, name a sample Strengthening Exercise:

    Single leg balance reach

62. During a Fitness assessment, on the anterior view, When the knees move inward, What are the probable overactive muscles:

    • Adductor Complex
    • Biceps Femoris
    • Tensor Fascia Latae
    • Vastus Lateralis

63. During a Fitness assessment, on the anterior view, When the knees move inward, what are the probable underactive muscles?

    • Gluteus medius/Maximus
    • Vastus Medialis Oblique(VMO)

64. During a Fitness assessment, on the anterior view, When the knees move inward, Name a sample strengthening exercise:

    Tube Walking: Side to Side

65. During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When there is excessive forward lean, What are the probable overactive muscles:

    • Soleus
    • Gastrocnemius
    • Hip Flexor Complex(TFL, rectus femoris, psoas)
    • Abdominal Complex(Rectus Abdominis, External Obliques)

66. During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When there is excessive forward lean, What are the probable underactive muscles:

    • Anterior Tibialis
    • Gluteus Maximus
    • Erector Spinae

67. During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When there is excessive forward lean, Name a sample strengthening exercise:

    • Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise
    • Ball Wall Squats

68. During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the lower back arches, what are the probable overactive muscles?

    • Hip Flexor Complex(TFL, Rectus Femoris, Psoas)
    • Erector Spinae
    • Latissimus Dorsi

69. During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the lower back arches, What are the probable underactive muscles:

    • Gluteus Maximus
    • Hamstring Complex
    • Intrinsic Core Stabilizers(Transverse Abdominis, multifidus, Transversospinalis, internal oblique, Pelvic-Floor muscles)

70. During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the lower back arches, Name a sample strenghtening exercise:

    • Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise
    • Ball Squats

71. During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the arms fall forward, what are the probable overactive muscles:

    • Latissumus Dorsi
    • Teres Major
    • Pectoralis Major/Minor

72. During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the arms fall forward, what are the probable underactive muscles:

    • Mid/lower Trapezius
    • Rhomboids
    • Rotator Cuff(Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Subscapularis)

73. During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the arms fall forward, Name a sample Strengthening exercise:

    Squat To Row

74. During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the Shoulders elevate during a pushing/pulling assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles:

    • Upper trapezius
    • Sternocleidomastoid
    • Levator Scapulae

75. During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the Shoulders elevate during a pushing/pulling assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles?

    Mid/Lower Trapezius

76. During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the Shoulders elevate during a pushing/pulling assessment, name a sample Strengthening exercise:

    Ball Cobra

77. During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the Head protrudes forward during a pushing/pulling assessment, What are the probable overactive muscles:

    • Upper Trapezius
    • Sternocleidomastoid
    • Levator Scapulae

78. During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the Head protrudes forward during a pushing/pulling assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles:

    Deep Cervical Flexors

79. During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the Head protrudes forward during a pushing/pulling assessment, Name a sample Strengthening exercise:

    Chin Tuck(Keep Head in neutral position During all exercises)

80. Define: Proprioception

    An unstable(yet controllable) physical situation in which exercises are performed that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms

81. What is phase 1 of the OPT model:

    Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training - Increase muscular endurance and stability while developing optimal neuromuscular efficiency(Coordination)

82. What is Phase 2 of the OPT model?

    Phase 2 - Strength Endurance Training - Maintain Stabilization endurance while increasing Prime Mover Strength

83. What would be the Proprioceptive Push-Up progression

    Ball Push-up

84. What is a phase 2 Example Superset - Chest:

    • Barbell Bench Press(Strength)
    • Stability Ball Push Up(Stabilization)

85. What is a phase 2 Example Superset - Back?

    • Seated Cable Row(Strength)
    • Stability Ball Dumbell Row(Stabilization)

86. What is a phase 2 Example Superset - Shoulders:

    • Shoulder Press Machine(Strength)
    • Single Leg Dumbbell Press(Stabilization)

87. What is a phase 2 Example Superset - Legs:

    • Leg Press(Strength)
    • Single-Leg Squat(Stabilization)

88. What is Phase 3 of the OPT Model:

    Hypertrophy Training - Increase Muscle Size

89. What is Phase 4 of the OPT Model:

    • Maximum Strength Training - Optional Phase depending on Client goal
    • Increase motor unit recruitment
    • Improve Peak Force

90. What is Phase 5 of the OPT model:

    • Powel training-
    • Enhance Neuromuscular efficiency
    • Enhance Prime Mover Strength
    • increase Rate of Force Production

91. The Kinetic Chain Checkpoints refer to major joint regions of the body. What are these points:

    • Foot and Ankle
    • Knee
    • Lumbo-Pelvic-Hip Complex(LPHC)
    • Shoulders
    • Head And Cervical Spine

92. Define Epimysium

    A layer of connective tissue that is underneath the fascia and surrounds the muscle

93. Define Perimysium:

    The connective tissue that surrounds fascicles

94. Define Endomysium

    The deepest layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual muscle fibers

95. Type 1 Muscle Fibers

    • (Slow Twitch)
    • More Capillaries Mitochondria and Myoglobin
    • Increased Oxygen Delivery
    • Smaller in size
    • Less force produced
    • Slow to Fatigue
    • Long term contractions(stabilization)

96. Type II Muscle Fibers:

    • (Fast Twitch)
    • Fewer Capillaries, mitochondria and myoglobin
    • Decreased Oxygen Delivery
    • Larger In size
    • More Force Produced
    • Quick To fatigue
    • Short term Contractions(Force and Power)

97. Agonist(Prime Mover) for Chest Press?

    Pectoralis Major

98. Agonist(Prime Mover) for Overheard Press?

    Deltoid

99. Agonist(Prime Mover) for Row?

    Latissimus Dorsi

100. Agonist(Prime Mover) for Squat?

     Gluteus Maximus, Quadriceps

101. Synergist(assist prime mover) for Chest press:

     Anterior Deltoid, Triceps

102. Synergist(assist prime mover) for Overhead Press?

     Triceps

103. Synergist(assist prime mover) for Row?

     Posterior Deltoid, Triceps

104. Synergist(assist prime mover) for Squat?

     Hamstring Complex

105. Stabilizer(Stabilize while prime mover and synergist work) for Chest Press?

     Rotator Cuff

106. Stabilizer(Stabilize while prime mover and synergist work) for Overhead press?

     Rotator Cuff

107. Stabilizer(Stabilize while prime mover and synergist work) for Row?

     Rotator Cuff

108. Stabilizer(Stabilize while prime mover and synergist work) for Squat?

     Transversus Abdominis

109. Antagonist(Oppose Prime Mover) for Chest Press?

     Posterior Deltoid

110. Antagonist(Oppose Prime Mover) for Overhead Press?

     Latissimus Dorsi

111. Antagonist(Oppose Prime Mover) for Row?

     Pectoralis Major

112. Antagonist(Oppose Prime Mover) for Squat?

     Psoas

113. Describe the Sliding Filament Theory:

     • a sarcomere shortens as a result of the Z lines moving closer together
     • The Z lines converge as the result of myosin heads attaching to the actin filament and asynchronously pulling(power strokes) the actin filament across the myosin resulting in shortening of the muscle fiber.

114. What is the sliding filament theory:

     Describes how his and thin filaments within the sarcomere slide past one another, shortening the entire length of the sarcomere and thus shortening muscle and producing force.

115. What is Excitation-Contraction coupling?

     the process of neural stimulation creating a muscle contraction

116. Bioenergetics:

     The study of energy in the human body

117. Metabolism

     all the chemical reactions that occur in the body to maintain itself. The process in which nutrients are acquired, transported, used and disposed of by the body.

118. exercise metabolism

     The examination of bioenergetics as it relates to the unique physiologic changes and demands placed on the body during exercise.

119. Substrates

     The materials or substance on which an enzyme acts

120. Carbohydrates:

     • Organic compounds of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen which include starches, cellulose and sugars and are an important source of energy. All carbs are eventually broken down into Glucose, a simple sugar
     • Make up a large portion of animal foods

121. Glucose

     A simple sugar manufactured by the body from carbohydrates, fat and to a lesser extent, protein, which serves as the body's main source of fuel.

122. Fat:

     • One of the three main classes of foods and a source of energy in the body. Fats help the body use some vitamines and keep the skin healthy.
     • They also serve as energy stores for the body. in food, there are two types of fats: Saturated and unsaturated,

123. Triglycerides:

     The chemical or substrate form in which most fat exists in food as well as in the body.

124. Protein

     Amino acids linked by peptide bonds, which consist of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and usually sulfur and have several essential biologic compounds.

125. Gluconeogenesis:

     The formation of glucose from non-carboydrate souces such as amino acids.

126. Adenosine Triphosphate

     Energy Storage and transfer unit within the cells of the body.

127. Adenosine Diphosphate

     A high-energy compound occurring in all cells from which adenosine triphosphate is formed.

128. β-oxidation

     Beta Oxidation - The breakdown of triglycerides into smaller subunits called free fatty acids(FFA's) to concert FFA's into acyl-CoA molecules which then are available to enter the Krebs cycle and ultimately lead to the production of additional ATP

129. What  the three oxidative processes?

     • Aerobic Glycolysis
     • The krebs Cycle
     • The Electron Transport Chain(ETC)

130. Excess Postexercise Oxygen Consumption(EPOC):

     The state in which the body's metabolism is elevated after exercise

131. Glycolysis

     • overall goal is to produce energy
     • Glucose or Glycogen must be broken down into Glucose-6 Phosphate first
     • the conversion uses up 1 ATP molecule whereas with glycogen, it does not.
     • End result is Glucose or glycogen is broken down to either pyruvic acid(aerobic glycosis) or lactic acid(anaerobic glycosis)
     • 2 ATP for each mole or unit of glucose
     • 3 ATP from each unit of glycogen.

132. Oxidative system

     refer to pages 75-76

133. The myth of the fat burning zone?

     Refer to page 80

134. Arterioles branch out into vessels called?

     Capillaries

135. What term describes the number of heartbeats per minute and the amount of blood pumped per beat?

     Cardiac Output

136. where does reoxygenated leave the blood and go out to the entire body?

     Left ventricle

137. what are important functions of the skeletal system?

     leverage and support

138. which of the following energy pathways is used for activities lasting between 30-50 seconds?
     A: ATP-CP
     B:Glycolysis
     C: Oxidative
     D:Krebs Cycle

     B; Glycolysis

139. what is the primary function of the muscular system?

     To move the skeletal system

140. What muscle aids in breathing after a set of max effort sprints?

     Pectoralis Minor

141. Considerations for Special Populations - Youth?

     • Overhead Squat Assessment
     • Correcting Compensations when younger could prevent injuries in the future
     • Progressions based on postural control, not on amount of weight used
     • Make it fun.

142. Considerations for special populations - Seniors?

     • May need to start in sitting position prior to free-standing
     • level of stabilization determined by the client
     • A seated position may be the most unstable they can handle.

143. What is the training strategy for Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training?

     • Performing exercises in aproprioceptively enriched environ(controlled, unstable), the body is forced to recruit more muscles to stabilize itself,burning more calories.
     • Corrective flexibility
     • Low Loads, High Reps

144. What is the training strategy for Phase 2 Strength Endurance training?

     • Active Flexibility
     • Supersets
     • Moderate loads and reps(8-12)

145. What is the Training Strategy for Phase 3 Hypertrophy Training?

     • Active flexibility
     • High volume, high loads, mod. or low repetitions (6-10)

146. What is the Training Strategy for Phase 4 Maximal Strength?

     • Active flexibility
     • High loads, low repetitions (1-5), longer rest periods.

147. What is the Training Strategy for Phase 5 Power training?

     • Dynamic flexibilityb
     • Supersets: strength/power
     • Perform all power exercises as fast as can be controlled.

148. Proprioception?

     The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense body positions and limb movements.

149. Mechanoreceptors?

     Sensory receptors responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues

150. Muscle Spindles?

     Receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change.

151. Golgi Tendon Organs?

     Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change.

152. Muscular system?

     Series of muscles that move the skeleton

153. calorie?

     The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water 1°C.

154. Calorie?

     A unit of expression of enregy equal to 1000 cal. The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of kilogram or it. of water 1°C.

155. Kilocalorie?

     A unit of expression of energy equal to 1000 calories. The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of kilogram or liter of water 1°Celsius.

156. Isotonic -

     • Force Is produced, Muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion.
     • Two components - Eccentric and Concentric phase.

157. Eccentric -

     • Moving in the same direction as the resistance.
     • Decelerates or reduces force

158. Concentric -

     • Moving in opposite direction of force
     • Accelerates or produces force

159. Isometric -

     • No visible movement with or against resistance
     • Dynamically stabilizes force

160. Isokinetic -

     • The speed of movement is fixed and resistance varies with the force exerted
     • Requires sophisticated training equipment often seen in rehabilitation or exercise physiology laboratories

161. During the force-couple relationship of the internal and External obliques, what is the movement created?

     Trunk Rotation

162. During the Force Couple relationship of the  Upper Trapezius and the lower portion of the serratus anterior, what is the movement created?

     Upward Rotation of the Scapula

163. During the Force Couple relationship of the  Gluteus Maximus, Quadriceps and Calf muscles, what is the movement created?`

     Produce Hip and knee extension during walking, running, stair climbing, etc

164. During the Force-Couple relationship of the Gastrocnemius, Peroneus Longus and Tibialis Posterior, what is the movement created?

     Performing Plantarflexion at the foot and ankle complex.

165. During the Force-Couple relationship of the Delotid and the Rotator Cuff, what is the movement created?

     Shoulder Abduction

166. Muscle Synergies during a squat?

     quadriceps, Hamstring Complex, Gluteus Maximus

167. Muscle Synergy during overhead press?

     Deltoid, Rotator Cuff, Trapezius

168. Clients must learn whether they are moving in the right direction, and
     if course corrections are needed. Which is
     the best tool for this type of learning?

     Self- Monitoring

169. During the concentric action of the gluteus maximus in the transverse plane what movement is occurring at the joint?
     A: Hip Flexion
     B: Hip Internal Rotation
     C: Hip Extension and Internal rotation
     D: Hip Flexion and Internal Rotation

     C: Hip Extension and Internal rotation

170. How long must a certified personal trainer maintain financial, contract, and tax records for?

     Four Years

171. How Many Calories are in One Gram of Protein?

     4

172. How Many Calories are in one gram of fat?

     9

173. How many sets per exercise should be performed by a client in the
     resistance portion of the stabilization endurance level of training?
     A: 0-2
     B: 1-3
     C: 2-4
     D: 3-5

     B: 1-3

174. How many sets per exercise should be performed for resistance training in the power phase of training?
     A: 0-2
     B: 1-3
     C: 2-4
     D: 3-5

     D: 3-5

175. How much communication is non-verbal?

     55%

176. How much water should men and Women consume on a daily basis?

     3.0L a day for men, 2.2L a day for women

177. If you are training a beginning client, who has never worked out before how many exercises per body part should be performed?
     A: 0-1
     B: 1-2
     C: 2-3
     D: 3-4

     B:1-2

178. In the preparation for the rotation chest pass, the clients should be:

     • Feet planted shoulder width apart
     • Standing upright with the body turned at a 90 degree angle to the wall or partner

179. Most fintess workouts consisting of 8-12 repititons use which of the following energy systems?
     A: ATP-PC
     B:Glycolysis
     C: OxidativeD:Phosphagen

     B: Glycolysis

180. Practicing self-myofascial release through the use of a foam roller creates autogenic inhibition by which of the following?
     A: exciting the muscle spindle
     B: Decreasing signal to the motor neurons
     C: Stimulating the Golgi Tendon Organ
     D: Inhibiting signal to the interneurons

     C: Stimulating the Golgi Tendon Organ

181. The active supine biceps femoris stretch is an example of which of the following?

     A: Autogenic Inhibition
     B: Reciprocal Inhibition
     C: Altered reciprocal Inhibition
     D: Synergistic Dominance

     B: Reciprocal Inhibition

182. The adaptation of Endurance is achieved by which of the following?

     A: 8-10 repetitions at 50-70% of 1RM
     B: 12-20 repetitions at 50-70% of 1RM
     C: 8-10 repetitions at 75-85% of 1RM
     D:12-20 repetitions at 75-85% of 1RM

     B: 12-20 repetitions at 75-85% of 1RM

183. The chance of obesity-related health problems increase when a persons BMI exceeds:

     25

184. What does the A represent in the acronym READ?

     Assessment

185. What is the minimum requirement to maintain certification with NASM?

     2.0 CEU within 2 years

186. What is the most effective way to accomplish weight loss long-term?

     Controlled Calorie Diet

187. What part of the heart is responsible for pumping reoxygenated blood out to the rest of the body?

     a. Left Ventricle
     b. Right Ventricle
     c. Left Atrium
     d. Right Atrium

     A: Left Ventricle

188. What type of insurance must a trainer maintain?

     Liability

189. When consuming a low carbohydrate diet, which of the following is responsible for the rapid weight loss?

     a. Loss of water
     b. Loss of body fat
     c. Increase in metabolism
     d. Increase of energy

     A: Loss of water

190. When participating in a marathon, what is the preferred form of energy?

     Fats

191. When performing a single-leg hip rotation exercise, how many repetitions should be performed each leg?

     a. 6 to 10
     b. 11-15
     c. 1-4
     d. 16-20

     A: 6-10

192. When performing CPR, how should the compressions be administered?

     Firm and Deep

193. When performing the strengthening exercise, single-leg balance reach for
     the feet turning out compensation, what is the proper repetition range
     to use?
     a. 1-8
     b. 6-10
     c.11-18
     d. 12-24

     B: 6-10

194. When starting with a brand new client who has never worked out, which resistance training system would be most appropriate?
     a. single-set
     b.circuit training
     c. Peripheral heart action
     d. Split-set

     A: Single set

195. When training a client for speed, agility, and quickness, which of the following exercises would be most appropriate?

     a. Box Jumps
     b. Tuck jumps
     c. One-ins
     d. Butt kicks

     C: One-ins

196. When training a client with Arthritis who has never worked out before,
     it may be necessary to start out with how many minutes of exercise?

     5 minutes

197. When using the proprioceptive continuum, whichis is the correct progression given the foam pad, half foam roll, floor, balance disc, balance beam?

     : Floor-Balance beam-Half foam roll-foam pad-balance disc

198. When working with a client with hypertension which of the following is the most appropriate exercise?
     a. Ball Cobra
     b. Standing Cobra
     c.floor bridge
     d. isometric squat

     B: Standing Cobra

199. When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?

     a. Davies test
     b. Shark skills test
     c. Bench press
     d. Single-leg squat

     D: Single-leg squat

200. When working with a senior client who is just starting out in Phase 1,
     which of the following exercises would be most appropriate?

     a. Seated Chest Press
     b. Ball Dumbbell Chest Press
     c. Barbell Chest Press
     d. TRX Chest Press

     A: Seated Chest Press

201. When working with a senior client, as a trainer you should expect which of the following?

     a. Maximal exercise heart rate will decrease
     b. Maximal oxygen uptake will increase
     c. Body fat will increase
     d. Exercise will increase the chance of heart disease

     B: Maximal oxygen Uptake will increase

202. Where in the digestion process are protein strands broken down?

     Stomach

203. Which of the following assessments is designed to assess lower extremity agility and muscular control?

     a. Single- leg squat
     b. Davies test
     c. Single leg star test
     d. Shark Skill test

     d. Shark Skill test

204. Which of the following best describes when a person in ready to move to stage two cardiorespiratory training from stage one?

     C. Can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes

205. Which of the following body composition assessments is most appropriate for an obese client?

     a. Body Mass Index
     b. Circumference measurements
     c. Skinfold Measurements
     d. Waist to hip ratio

     B: Circumference Measurements

206. Which of the following core exercises is most appropriate for an obese client?

     a. Incline Prone Iso- Ab
     b. Marching
     c. Ball Crunch
     d. Floor Prone Cobra

     a. Incline Prone Iso- Ab

207. Which of the following describes the acronym SMART?

     a. Specific, meaningful, attainable, realistic, timely
     b. Specific, measurable, accountable, realistic, timely
     c. Specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, timely
     d. Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, timely

     d. Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, timely

208. Which of the following exercises is a plyometric- power exercise?

     a. Repeat box jumps
     b. Lunge jumps
     c. Box run steps
     d. Jump rope

     c. Box run steps

209. Which of the following exercises take place in the sagittal plane of motion?

     a. Front Lunge
     b. Side Lunge
     c. Side Shuffle
     d. Swinging a bat

     A: Front Lunge

210. Which of the following exercises take place in the frontal plane of motion?

     a. Front Lunge
     b. Side Lunge
     c. Vertical Jumping
     d. Throwing

     b. Side Lunge

211. Which of the following exercises would be categorized as a core power exercise?

     a. Ball Crunch
     b. Back Extension
     c. Soccer throw
     d. Marching

     c. Soccer Throw

212. Which of the following fatty acids has had hydrogen added to it in order to increase shelf-life?

     a. Trans-fatty acids
     b. Saturated fatty acids
     c. Monounsaturated fatty acids
     d. Polyunsaturated fatty acids

     a. Trans-Fatty acids

213. Which of the following in an effect of dehydration?

     a. Increased blood volume
     b. Increase sweat rate
     c. Increased heart rate
     d. Increased blood flow to the skin

     c. Increased Heart Rate

214. Which of the following is a common force couple?

     a. Trapezius and rotator cuff during lateral shoulder raise
     b. Gluteus Maximus and psoas during a squat
     c. Deltoid and lattissimus dorsi during a shoulder press
     d. Internal and external obliques during a medicine ball oblique throw

     d. Internal and external obliques during a medicine ball oblique throw

215. Which of the following is a core strength-level exercise?

     a. Soccer throw
     b. Floor prone cobra
     c. Cable lift
     d. Ball Cobra

     c. Cable Lift

216. Which of the following is a function of the muscular system?

     a. Control center for movement production
     b. Structural framework for the body
     c. Coordinate the activity of all parts of the body
     d. Command to move the skeletal system

     d. Command to move the skeletal system

217. Which of the following is a goal of strength level training?

     a. Increase rate of force production
     b. Enhance neuromuscular efficiency
     c. Increase lean body mass
     d. Increase flexiblity

     c. Increase lean body mass

218. Which of the following is a kinetic chain check point for the overhead squat assessment when assessing from the lateral view?

     a. Feet
     b. Knees
     c. Shoulder complex
     d. Head

     c. Shoulder complex

219. Which of the following is a normal stroke volume for an adult?

     a. 70 mL/beat
     b. 85 mL/beat
     c. 90 mL/beat
     d. 60 mL/beat

     a. 70 mL/beat

220. Which of the following is a possible injury of lower crossed syndrome?

     a. Plantar fasciitis
     b. Hamstring complex strain
     c. Patellar tendonitis
     d. Posterior knee pain

     b. Hamstring complex strain

221. Which of the following is a proper superset for Strength Endurance Training?

     a. Push-up followed by bench press
     b. Push-up followed by soccer throw
     c. Bench press followed by push-up
     d. Soccer throw followed by push-up

     c. Bench press followed by push-up

222. Which of the following is a sign of pronation distortion syndrome?

     a. Knee adduction
     b. Knee abduction
     c. Foot internal rotation
     d. Foot supination

     a. Knee adduction

223. Which of the following is a Stabilization Endurance exercise?

     a. Lunge to two-arm dumbbell press
     b. Ball dumbbell chest press
     c. Two-arm medicine ball chest press
     d. Seated cable row

     b. Ball dumbbell chest press

224. Which of the following is a symptom of metabolic syndrome?

     a. Restrictive lung disease
     b. Coronary heart disease
     c. Chronic obstructive lung disease
     d. Insulin resistance

     d. Insulin resistance

225. Which of the following is a technique that expresses the purported meaning of what was just heard?

     a. Active listening
     b. Asking questions
     c. Reflecting
     d. Summarizing

     c. Reflecting

226. Which of the following is a total body strength-level exercise?

     a. Squat thrusters
     b. Romanian deadlift, shrug to calf raise
     c. Single-leg Romanian dead lift, curl to overhead press
     d. Single-leg squat to row

     b. Romanian deadlift, shrug to calf raise

227. Which of the following is about having an attitude and genuine interest in seeking a clients perspective?

     a. Active listening
     b. Asking questions
     c. Reflecting
     d. Summarizing

     a. Active listening

228. Which of the following is an example of a nondirective question?

     a. How long has this been a goal?
     b. What are you trying to achieve?
     c. What is your height?
     d. Is it important for you to reach your goal?

     b. What are you trying to achieve?

229. Which of the following is the appropriate repetition range for resistance training in the maximal strength phase of training?

     a. 12-20
     b. 8-12
     c. 5-10
     d. 1-5

     d. 1-5

230. Which of the following is the appropriate repetition range for resistance training in the hypertrophy phase of training?

     a. 12-20
     b. 8-15
     c. 6-12
     d. 1-5

     c. 6-12

231. Which of the following is the correct order for the stage of change model?

     a. Precontemplation, Preparation, Contemplation, Action, Maintenance

     b. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, Maintenance

     c. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Action, Continuance, Maintenance

     d. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, continuation

     b. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, Maintenance

232. Which of the following is the correct recommendation for caffeine intake for performance enhancement?

     a. 1-3 mg/kg
     b. 3-6 mg/kg
     c. 1-3 mg/lb
     d. 3-6 mg/lb

     b. 3-6 mg/kg

233. Which of the following is the maximum number of sets a client should complete in a given workout?

     a. 12
     b. 24
     c. 36
     d. 48

     c. 36

234. Which of the following is the middle layer of muscular connective tissue?

     a. Fasciculus
     b. Endomysium
     c. Perimysium
     d. Epymysium

     c. Perimysium

235. Which of the following is the process of asking your clients why to get to what their motivations are?

     a. Psychoanalysis
     b. READ principle
     c. Motivation
     d. Root cause analysis

     d. Root cause analysis

236. Which of the following is the proper equation when determining a clients heart rate for Zone 1?

     a. (200-clients age)x (60% and 70%)

     b. (220-clients age)x (65% and 70%)

     c. (200-clients age)x (60% and 75%)

     d. (220-clients age)x (65% and 75%)

     d. (220-clients age)x (65% and 75%)

237. Which of the following is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute?

     a. Blood pressure
     b. Heart rate
     c. Stroke volume
     d. Cardiac output

     d. Cardiac output

238. Which of the following is within the scope of practice of a personal trainer?

     a. Design a nutrition plan for a client
     b. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client
     c. Massage a client
     d. Diagnose and illness

     b. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client

239. Which of the following muscles are lengthened when upper crossed syndrome is present?

     a. Sternocleidomastoid
     b. Deep cervical flexors
     c. Upper trapezius
     d. Scalenes

     b. Deep cervical flexors

240. Which of the following muscles are shortened when lower crossed syndrome is present?

     a. Gluteus maximus
     b. Internal oblique
     c. Latissimus dorsi
     d. Posterior tibialis

     c. Latissimus Dorsi

241. Which of the following muscles is shortened in pronation distortion syndrome?

     a. Soleus
     b. Anterior Tibialis
     c. Vastus Medialis
     d. Gluteus Medius

     a. Soleus

242. Which of the following muscles is shortened with upper crossed syndrome?

     a. Deep cervical flexors
     b. Rhomboids
     c. Teres Minor
     d. Scalenes

     d. Scalenes

243. Which of the following muscles is used during the expiration phase of breathing?

     a. Diaphragm
     b. Internal Intercostals
     c. External Intercostals
     d. Pectoralis Minor

     c. External Intercostals

244. Which of the following nutrients aids in maintaining muscle mass?

     a. Water
     b. Carbohydrates
     c. Protein
     d. Fat

     b. Carbohydrates

245. Which of the following protein recommendation is correct for a client with the goal of increasing lean body mass?

     a. 0.4 to 0.6 g/lb
     b. 0.5 to 0.8 g/lb
     c. 0.4 to 0.6 g/kg
     d. 0.5 to 0.8 g/kg

     b. 0.5 to 0.8 g/lb

246. Which of the following represents the importance of acute variables?

     a. Necessary for advanced clients
     b. Only needed for training athletes
     c. Determine the amount of stress placed on the body
     d. Ensure proper kinetic chain alignment

     c. Determine the amount of stress placed on the body

247. Which of the following statements is correct about the position of the
     foot and ankle complex during speed, agility, and quickness exercises?

     a. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position in the air

     b. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground

     c. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position in the air

     d. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position when it hits the ground

     b. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground

248. Which of the following tempos is most appropriate for the adaptation of stabilization?
     a. 4/2/1
     b. 3/2/1
     c. 1/1/1
     d. x/x/x

     a. 4/2/1

249. Which of the following would be categorized as a core stabilization exercise?

     a. Ball crunch
     b. Cable roation
     c. Reverse crunch
     d. Prone Iso-abs

     d. Prone Iso-abs

250. Which phase(s) of training should be used with a client who has a goal of body fat reduction?

     a. Phase 1 only
     b. Phase 1 and 2 only
     c. Phase 1, 2, and 3
     d. Phase 1, 2, 3, and 5

     b. Phase 1 and 2 only

251. Which phase(s) of training should be used with a client who has a goal of improving sports performance?

     a. Phase 5 only
     b. Phase 1 and 2 only
     c. Phase 1, 2, and 3
     d. Phase 1, 2, and 5

     d. Phase 1, 2, and 5

252. Which step in the SMART goal setting process is focused on creating goals that are challenging but not too extreme?

     a. Specific
     b. Measurable
     c. Attainable
     d. Realistic

     c. Attainable

253. Who must supervise a client when they are following an 800- 1000 calorie per day diet?

     A medical professional

254. You have a client with obstructive lung disease. Which of the following training systems is most appropriate?

     a. Circuit Training
     b. Vertical Loading
     c. Horizontal Loading
     d. Peripheral Heart Action

     d. Peripheral Heart Action

255. What is the isolated Function of the Anterior Tibialis?

     Concentrically accelerates dorsiflexion and inversion

256. What is the isolated function of the Posterior Tibialis?

     Concentrically accelerates plantarflexion and inversion of the foot.

257. What is the isolated function of the Soleus?

     Concentrically accelerates plantarflexion

258. What is the isolated function of the gastrocnemius?

     Concentrically accelerates plantarflexion

259. Whta is the isolated function fo the peronues longus?

     Concentrically plantarflexes and everts the foot

260. What is the isolated function of the Biceps femoris - long head?

     • Concentrically accelerates knee flexion and hip extension
     • tibial external rotation

261. What is the isolated function of the semimembranosus?

     Concentrically accelerates knee flexion, hip extension and tibial internal rotation

262. What is the isloated function of the semitendinosus?

     Concentrically accelerates knee flexion, hip extension and tibial internal rotation

263. what is the isolated function of the Vastus Lateralis?

     Concentrically accelerates knee extension

264. What is the isolated function of the vastus medialis?

     concentrically accelerates knee extension

265. what is the isolated function of the vastus intermedius?

     concentrically accelerates knee extension

266. What is the isolated function of the rectus femoris?

     Concentrically accelerates knee extension and hip flexion

267. What is the isolated function of the adductor longus

     Concentrically accelerates hip adduction, flexion and internal rotation

268. What is the isolated function aof the adductor magnus-anterior fibers?

     concentrically accelerates hip adduction, flexion and internal rotation

269. What is the isolated function of the adductor magnus - posterior fibers?

     Concentrically accelerates hip adduction, extension and external rotation

270. What is the isolated function of the adductor brevis?

     concentrically accelerates hip adduction, flexion and internal rotation

271. What is the isolated function of the Gracilis?

     concentrically acclerates hip adduction, flexion and internal rotation

272. What is the isolated function of the Pectineus?

     concentrically accelerates hip adduction, flexion and internal rotation

273. What is the isolated function of the gluteus medius?

     • Concentrically accelerates hip abduction and internal rotation(anterior Fibers)
     • concentrically accelerates hip abduction and external rotation(Posterior Fibers)

274. What is the isolated function of the gluteus Minimus?

     Concentrically accelerates hip abduction and internal rotation

275. What is the isolated function of the gluteus maximus?

     concentrically accelerates hip extension and external rotation

276. What is the isolated function of the TFL?

     Concentrically accelerates hip flexion, abduction and internal rotation

277. What is the isolated function of the psoas?

     • Concentrically accelerates hip flexion and external rotation
     • concentrically extends and rotates lumbar spine.

278. WHat is the isolated function of the Iliacus?

     Concentrically accelerates hip flexion and external rotation

279. What is the Isolated function of the sartorius?

     • Concentrically accelerates hip flexion, external rotation and abduction
     • concentrically accelerates knee flexion and internal rotation

280. What is the isolated function of the piriformis?

     Concentrically accelerates hip external rotation, abduction and extension

281. What is the isolated function of the Rectus Abdominis?

     Concentrically accelerates spinal flexion, lateral flexion and rotation.

282. What is the isolated function of the external oblique?

     spinal flexion, lateral flexion and contralateral rotation

283. what is the isloated function of the internal oblique?

     spinal flexion, lateral flexion and ipsilateral rotation.

284. What is the isolated function of the transverse abdominis?

     • increases intra-abdominal pressure
     • supports the abdominal viscera.

285. What is the isolated function of the diaphragm?

     Concentrically pulls the central tendon inferiorly, increasing the volume in the thoracic cavity.

286. What is the isolated function of the latissimus dorsi?

     shoulder extension, adduction and internal rotation

287. What is the isolated function of the serrratus anterior?

     Scapular protraction

288. What is the isolated function of the rhomboid major?

     Concentrically produces scapular retraction and downward rotation.

289. What is the isolated function of the rhomboid minor?

     concentrically produces scapular retraction and downward rotation

290. What is the isolated function of the lower trapezius?

     concentrically accelerates scapular depression

291. what is the isloated function of the middle trapezius?

     scapular retraction

292. What is the isolated function fo the upper trapezius?

     • cervical extension, lateral flexion and rotation
     • scapular elevation

293. What is the isloated function of the Pectoralis major?

     Shoulder flexion(clavicle fibers), horizontal adduction and internal rotation

294. What is the isloated function of the pectoralis minor?

     protacts the scapula

295. What is the isolated function of the anterior deltoid?

     shoulder flexion and internal rotation

296. What is the isloated function of the medial deltoid?

     Shoulder abduction

297. what is the isolated function of the posterior deltoid?

     shoulder extension and external rotation

298. what is the isolated function of the teres major?

     shoulder internal rotation, adduction and extension

299. What are the isolated functions of the teres minor and infraspinatus?

     concentrically accelerates external shoulder rotation

300. What is the isolated function of the subscapularis?

     Shoulder internal rotation

301. What is the isolated function of the supraspinatus?

     Abduction of the arm.

302. What is the isolated function of the Biceps Brachii?

     Elbow flexion, supination of the radioulnar joint and shoulder flexion.

303. What is the isolated function of the Triceps Brachii

     elbow and shoulder extension

304. What are the isolated functions of the brachioradialis and the brachialis?

     elbow flexion

305. What are the areas focused on during Flexibility: Self-Myofascial release?

     • Peroneals
     • Hamstrings
     • Quadriceps
     • Thoracic spine

306. What are exercises listed under static stretching?

     • Solues
     • 90/90 hamstring
     • Supine biceps femoris
     • standing biceps femoris
     • Seated ball adductor
     • adductor magnus
     • Supine piriformis
     • erector spinae
     • levator scapulae
     • sternocleidomastoid

307. What are some of the exercises listed in Active-Isloated stretching?

     • Soleus(supination/pronation)
     • 90/90 hamstring
     • supine biceps femoris
     • seated ball adductor
     • adductor magnus
     • levator scapulae
     • sternocleidomastoid

308. What are some exercises involved in Dynamic Stretching?

     • Medicine ball rotation
     • medicine ball lunge with rotation
     • Russian Twist
     • leg swings front to back and side to side
     • push-up with rotation

309. What are exercises listed under Core Stabilization?

     • Ball bridge
     • Quadruped opposite arm/leg raise
     • ball cobra
     • side iso-abs(side plank)

310. What are exercises listed under Core-strength?

     • Knee-up
     • Cable Lift
     • Cable Chop
     • Reverse hypers

311. What are exercises listed under Core Power?

     • Side medicine ball oblique throw
     • soccer throw
     • medicine ball back extension throw

312. What are exercises listed under balance-Stabilization?

     • Single-leg arm and leg motion
     • single-leg windmill

313. What are exercises listed under balance strength?

     • Single leg squat with cable assistance
     • reverse lunge to balance

314. What are exercises listed under Balance-Power?

     • Single leg proprioceptive hop with stabilization: Sagittal plane
     • Single leg proprioceptive hop with stabilization: frontal plane
     • Single leg proprioceptive hop with stabilization: Transverse plane

315. What are exercises listed for Plyometric-Stabilization?

     • Cone jumps with stabilization: Sagittal plane
     • Cone jumps with stabilization: Frontal plane
     • Cone jumps with stabilization: Transverse plane

316. What are exercises listed under plyometric-Strength?

     • Jump Rope
     • lunge jumps
     • repeat box jumps

317. What are exercises listed under plyometric power?

     • Box Run Steps: Sagittal plane
     • Box run steps: Frontal plane

318. What are exercises listed under Total body-stabilization?

     • single-leg squat touchdown, curl to overhead press
     • single-leg romanian deadlift curl, to overhead press
     • single-leg squat to row

319. What are exercises listed under total body-Strength?

     • step-up to overhead press: Sagittal plane
     • romanian deadlift, shrug to calf raise

320. What are exercises listed under total body power?

     • Dumbbell snatch
     • Squat Thrust(burpies)
     • Kettlebell hang clean and jerk

321. What are exercises listed under Chest-Stabilization?

     • Ball Push-up: Hands on ball
     • Standing cable chest press

322. What are exercises listed under chest strength?

     • Incline Dumbbell Chest Press
     • Incline Barbell bench press

323. What are exercises listed under Chest-Power?

     • Speed tubing chest press
     • plyometric push-up

324. What are exercises listed under back-Stabilization?

     • Single-leg pulldown
     • Ball cobra
     • KB renegade row

325. What are exercises listed under Back Strength?

     • Straight-arm pulldown
     • Pull-up
     • supported dumbbell row

326. What are exercises listed under back-Power?

     • Woodchop throw
     • Speed tubing row

327. What are exercises listed under shoulder stabilization?

     • single-leg overhead press
     • Ball Combos(1 and 2)

328. What are exercises listed under shoulder strength?

     • Seated dumbbell lateral raise
     • Shoulder shrug
     • standing dumbbell shoudler flexion

329. What are exercises listed under shoulder power?

     • overhead throw
     • speed tubing shoulder press

330. What are exercises listed for Biceps-Stabilization?

     • Single-leg cable curl
     • single-leg hammer curl

331. What are exercises listed for biceps strength?

     • Seated hammer curl
     • Standing barbell curl

332. What are exercises listed for Triceps-Stabilization?

     • single-leg cable pressdown
     • narrow grip push-up

333. What are exercises listed for Triceps- Strength?

     • Supine bench barbell triceps extension
     • narrow grip bench press

334. What are exercises listed for Legs-Stabilization?

     • Cable Squat
     • BOSU ball squat
     • Ball Hamstring curl

335. What are exercises listed for Leg-Strength?

     • Romanian Deadlift
     • Cable Hamstring Curl
     • Cable leg extension

336. What are exercises listed for Leg-Power?

     • Power Step-up
     • Lunge jumps
     • Box jumps

Which muscle would be considered overactive leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment Nasm?

Which muscle would be considered overactive leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment Nasm?

Which muscle would be considered overactive leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment?

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?