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Terms in this set (280)Which criteria are routing decisions based upon? B. All routing decisions are based upon destination IP address. The router examines 2. Which type of routing requires network administrator intervention? 2. C. Static routing requires a network administrator to intervene and create a route in When an IP address is configured on the router's interface, what happens
in the D. When an IP address is configured on a router's interface, the network is 4. Which is a correct statement about the subnet mask? 4. A. The subnet mask is used by the host to determine the immediate network and 5. What protocol does the router or host use to find a MAC address for the frame when 5. C. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is employed by the host or router when a 6. When a packet is determined remote from the network of the sending host, what 6. C. The destination MAC address is changed to the router's MAC address and the 7. Which statement describes correctly what happens when a packet moves through a 7. B. The TTL, or time to live, is decremented usually by one. When the TTL reaches 8. What is the entry for the IP address in the routing table called in IOS 15
code when 8. B. When an IP address is configured on an interface, the entry in the routing table is 9. When a packet is determined to be on the local network, what happens? 9. B. When a packet is determined to be local to the sending host, ARP is used to 10. How does the sending host know if the destination is local or remote in respect to 10. B. The sending host ANDs its subnet mask against the destination IP address, then 11. What is the current method Cisco routers use for packet forwarding? 11. D. The current method of packet forwarding used by Cisco routers is Cisco Express 12. What is the process called at layer 2 when a packet hops from router to router and 12. B. The layer 2 process is called frame rewrite. When a packet hops from router to 13. When a host sends an ARP request packet out, what is the destination address of 13. C. When a MAC address is unknown for the destination IP address or the default What does every network device use to limit the amounts of ARP packets? A. Every host contains an ARP cache. This cache allows for lookups of MAC addresses for destination IP addresses when the host frequently sends packets to thedestination. Therefore, there are fewer ARP packets. 15. Which statement describes what happens when a packet enters a router? 15. B. After the frame is verified to be addressed to the router and the FCS has been checked, the router decapsulates the packet and strips off the frame. 16. Which command will display the router's ARP cache? 16. D. The command to display the router's ARP cache is show ip arp . 17. What is the default time an entry will live in the ARP cache? 17. B. By default, all entries have a time to live, or TTL, of 240 seconds. They will be removed after that period if not used during the 240 seconds. 18. What is the relevance of the default gateway address on a host? 18. C. When traffic is remote to the immediate network, the host sends an ARP packet 19. Which command will display the router's routing table? 19. A. The command to view the routing table is show ip route . 20. Which type of routing allows for routers to share their routing tables with other 20. D. Dynamic routing allows for the population of routing tables from advertisements of other routers. There are several dynamic routing protocols, such as, for example, EIGRP, RIP, OSPF. 21. Which statement describes what happens during the routing process? 21. B. When a route is found in the routing table, the router will find the gateway for 22. Which protocol allows for testing and connectivity of a route? 22. D. The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a layer 3 protocol that allows 23. Which command will clear the ARP cache of the local router? 23. C. The command clear arp cache will clear the ARP cache of a router. It is notable that the command clear arp-cache will clear the ARP cache of the local router as well as send a gratuitous ARP (GARP) for other devices to relinquish the ARP cache of the router's address. 24. Which routing protocol is a distance-vector routing protocol? 24. B. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a distance-vector protocol. 25. What uses ICMP to directly check the status of a router? 25. C. The ping command uses ICMP to check the status of a router. It also gives the round-trip time of the packet. 26. When an ICMP packet reaches a router for which is has no further route, what happens? 26. D. The last router will send an ICMP packet back to the originating host, which has 27. You have just used the ping command for a distant
router. You received back five exclamation marks. What do these mean? 27. C. When you're using the ping command, the exclamation marks signify that the 28. Which statement
accurately describes a routing loop? 28. B. A routing loop occurs when packets are routed between two or more routers and 29. Which routing protocol is a link-state routing protocol? 29. A. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a link-state protocol. A link-state protocol 30. Where are dynamic routes stored in a router? 30. A. Dynamic routes are stored in RAM. When the power is taken away from a router, all routes must be repopulated by neighboring routers. 31. When a static route is
made, what is the default administrative distance? 31. A. Static routes are highly trusted routes since an administrator created them. Therefore, they have the lowest administrative distance with a number of 1. 32. You are examining a routing table and see a route marked with S* . Which type of 32. B. Although this is a static route, it is a very special static route called a default route or gateway of last resort. The S signifies that it is static and the * signifies that it is the default route. 33. You are examining a routing table and see the entry in the following exhibit. What does the 4 in the underlined number represent? R 172.16.2.0 [120/4] via 1.1.1.13, 00:13:24, FastEthernet0/1 A. The 4 represents the administrative distance. 33. C. The 4 represents the metric for this route statement. Since this is a RIP entry, 34. What type of route is the
destination of 0.0.0.0/0? 34. C. The destination address of 0.0.0.0/0 is a special route called the default route or 37. You need to create a route for a network of
192.168.4.0/24 through the gateway of serial 0/1 on a 2621 router. Which is the proper command? 37. B. The correct command sequence is ip route , followed by the network ID, the 38. You type into the router ip default-gateway 192.168.11.2 . Why will traffic not route out the default gateway? 38. B. The command ip default-gateway allows the management plane of the router 42. When you configure an IP address on a router interface, what happens to the routing table? 42. D. When an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 is configured, for example, the router will create a summary route for 192.168.1.0/24 as well as a route for 192.168.1.1/32. Both of these changes to the routing table will trigger an update depending on which dynamic routing protocol is being used. 43. You want to verify the IP addresses
configured on the router. Which command will you use? 43. B. The command show ip interfaces brief will display all of the interfaces and their configured IP addresses. 44. You configure a brand new IP address on a new router's interface. However, when you look at the routing table, it does not show
up. You see a link light on the interface. 44. A. A route for the interface will not be populated in the routing table until the What is a benefit of static routing? C. Static routing is suited for small networks, where the central admin has a good 47. Where are static routes stored? 47. C. When you configure a static route, it is stored in the startup-config, which is located on the NVRAM. When a router loads, the routes are held in RAM. 48. You want to route
192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24 to a destination address of 198.43.23.2. How can you accomplish this with one route statement so that other networks are not affected? 48. C. The easiest way to accomplish this is to super-net the addresses together. The network of 192.168.0.0/30 or 255.255.240.0 would capture traffic for the range of 192.168.0.1 to 192.168.3.254. Why would you create a second route statement to the same network using a different administrative distance and different interface? B. Secondary routes with higher administrative distance are used for failover. If the physical interface fails, the route statement will be taken out of the routing table. Then the second route will become active.
52. Why can a route have a destination of an interface rather than an IP address? 52. A. Serial interfaces are point-to-point connections. Any traffic directed down the 57. Which route statement is configured when an IP address of 194.22.34.54/28 is configured on an interface? 57. A. The IP address of 194.22.34.54/28 belongs to the network of 194.22.34.48/28. 58. You need to create a route for 205.34.54.85/29 and the next hop is 205.34.55.2. 58. B. The network of 205.34.54.85/29 is written out as 205.34.54.85 255.255.255.248. 59. Which command will create a default route through Serial 0/0 for IPv6? 59. C. When entering IPv6 routes. you must use the command ipv6 route . It is then followed by the IPv6 prefix and mask and then the gateway. The default route would be ipv6 route ::/0 serial 0/0 . 60. Which command would configure the route for an IPv6
network of FC00:0:0:1with the exit interface of serial 0/0/0? 60. B. When configuring an IPv6 route, you use the ipv6 route command. You then must specify the network and mask using CIDR notation. Last, you specify the exitinterface or
next hop of serial 0/0/0 . The complete command will be ipv6 route 62. What is the administrative distance of RIP? 62. D. The administrative distance of the Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is 120. 63. Why are administrative distances used with routing tables? 63. B. Administrative distance is an order of reliability between dynamic routing 64. What is
the administrative distance of a directly connected network? 64. A. A directly connected network has an administrative distance of 0 and is the 65. What is the administrative distance of internal EIGRP? 65. A. Internal EIGRP has an administrative distance of 90. What is the administrative distance of OSPF? C. The administrative distance of Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is 110. 68. Which statement is true when there are multiple route statements from different routing protocols for the same destination network? 68. C. The routing protocol with the lowest administrative distance is always chosen. 69.
Which command will configure a static route with an administrative distance higher than RIP? 69. B. The administrative distance can be added to the end of the route
statement. 70. A router has three routes to the same network: one route from a RIP with a metric of 4, another from OSPF with a metric of 3053092, and another from EIGRP with a metric of 4039043. Which of the three routes will be used for the routing decision? 70.
A. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) has the lowest 71. Which is a correct statement about SVI inter-VLAN routing (IVR)? 71. A. Latency is lower with SVI inter-VLAN routing because of the use of ASICs. This 72. Which is a disadvantage of using router on a stick (ROAS)? 72. C. The scalability of ROAS is a major disadvantage. It does not scale well when a 73. What is the purpose of issuing the command no switchport on a layer 3 switch? 73. D. The command no switchport does the opposite of configuring a port as a switch 74. Which is a correct statement about inter-VLAN routing (IVR)? 74. A. The use of VLANs requires a unique IP network for each VLAN. This is how broadcast domains are increased, since all VLANs are behind a router interface (default gateway). 75. You need to configure a router that has three interfaces to route five VLANs. Which method would you choose to accomplish this? 75. B. Router on a stick is created by configuring a trunk between the switch and the router. ROAS will receive tagged frames and route them, then send them back down the interface to the respective connected VLAN. 76. Which command do you need to enter on a switch to
allow routing between VLANs? 76. C. The ip routing command must be entered in global config. When this command is entered, a routing table will be created and populated. 77. What is the method of using a single router interface to route between VLANs 77. B. When a router's interface is used to allow routing, the method is called router 78. When routing between VLANs with a router's interface, which trunking protocol is 78. B. 802.1Q is the trunking protocol that should be used for
tagging VLANs when 79. What is a disadvantage of routing between VLANs on a router's interface? 79. B. Bandwidth is often a consideration because everything you
send to the router 80. What is the method of routing between VLANs on a layer 3 switch? 80. C. When
you perform inter-VLAN routing on a layer 3 switch, it is called Switched 81. Which command would configure the interface on the ROAS configuration as the native VLAN? 81. D. The command encapsulation dot1q 2 will associate the subinterface with VLAN 2. If you specify the native tag after the command, it will make this subinterface the native VLAN for the trunk. 82. Which commands would you use to configure an IP address on an SVI? 82. A. When configuring an IP address on an SVI, you must enter the interface of the VLAN. Once in the pseudo interface, you enter the ip address command and then enter no shutdown . 83. When configuring ROAS, which mode must the switch port on the switch be configured to? 83. A. When you are configuring a router on a stick, the switch port of the switch must 84. When configuring the subinterfaces on a router for ROAS, what is a best practice when naming the subinterface? 84.
B. A best practice is to always name the subinterface the same as the VLAN 85. Which command enables the routers to direct the frames for a particular VLAN tothe subinterface? 85. C. The command encapsulation dot1q 5 , when configured inside of the 86. Which command must be entered on 2960-XR switches to enable IP routing? 86. B. On 2960-XR switches you must enable the Switching Database Manager (SDM) for LAN Base routing to enable routing. The switch then requires a reload before you can configure routable SVIs. 87. You want to verify the configured SVI VLAN interfaces. Which command will show 87. A. The same command used to verify physical interfaces on a router, is used to 88. You enter the command ip
address 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 on interface VLAN 2. When you enter the command, you receive a "Bad mask /24 for address" error. What is the problem? 88. C. The command ip address 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 only defines the 192.168.2.0 network. It does not specify a valid host IP address for the SVI. 89. You have purchased a layer 3 switch with the LAN Base feature. When you enter 89. B. The LAN Base feature supports IP routing between SVIs. However, it must be enabled first via the Switching Database Manager (SDM) by using the sdm prefer lanbase-routing command. 90. You have a 3560 switch that supports layer 3 routing. You need to configure a 90. C. The no switchport will configure a physical port of a switch to act as a routed 91. Which command will allow you to examine a switch's port to see if it is routed or 91. A. The command show interface gi 0/2 switchport will show the state of a port. 92. You need more bandwidth to your switch from the router. Currently you have
one Gigabit Ethernet connection in use and both your router and switch have another available Gigabit Ethernet connection. What can you do to get more bandwidth? 92. C. You can build an EtherChannel between routers and switches
to obtain more 93. You need to configure ROAS on a router's interface to route VLAN 5 with ISL. 93. D. The command encapsulation isl 5 configured in the subinterface will achieve 94. You have just configured a new VLAN and have configured the SVI with an IP address and no shutdown command on the interface. However, when you perform a show ip route , it does not show a valid
directly connected route for the SVI. What is 94. B. After configuring a VLAN and the respective SVI interface, a route will not show 95. Which of the following is a correct statement about Router On A Stick?A. Using a ROAS is a highly efficient alternative to routed SVIs. 95. B. Using Router On A Stick is a cheaper alternative to IVR if the current switch 96. Before configuring ROAS, which command should be entered in the interface 96. B. When configuring ROAS on a router's interface, you should always issue the no 97. You have configured a Router On A Stick and set up the switch to connect to the router. However, you cannot route between VLANs. Which command would you use 97. C. Verifying the proper
operation of the switch would start with verifying that the 98. When configuring a router in an ROAS configuration, which command will enable the interface to accept frames tagged for VLAN 10? 98. C. When you're configuring a router interface to accept VLAN tagging, the 99. Which statement is correct about ARP in relation to ROAS? 99. A. When ROAS is implemented, only the physical interface has a unique MAC 100. Which statement is correct about implementing ROAS? 100. A. Each IP address on a subinterface is the routed gateway for the VLAN on that 101.
Which is a reason for using a dynamic routing protocol? 101. D. The scalability of routes between routers should always be considered when 102. Which routing technique is a type of static routing? 102. C. Default routing is a form of static routing. It is used on the edge of a networkto direct all traffic to the inner core of the network. 103. Which is an advantage of using static routing? 103. B. Static routing is extremely secure, because it does not need to broadcast or multicast routing updates. These updates can be intercepted or injected into a network to create problems. 104. Which routing technique has the lowest bandwidth overhead? 104. D. Static routing has the lowest bandwidth overhead because there is no bandwidth required to maintain static routes. 105. Which routing technique
requires no administrator intervention when a route goes down? 105. A. Dynamic routing does not require any administrator intervention when routes 106. Which routing technique
requires increased time for configuration as networks grow? 106. C. Static routing requires increased time for configuration as networks grow in complexity. You will need to update routers that you add with all of the existing routes in the network. You will also need to update all of the existing routers with the new routes you add with the new router. 107. Which routing technique requires the lowest amount of router RAM consumption? 107. D. Default routing requires the least amount of RAM consumption because one routing statement is required for every route. This type of routing technique is best used on stub network routers. 108. Which dynamic routing
protocol has the lowest overhead? 108. C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) has the lowest overhead of all of the routing protocols. However, it is not very scalable, the maximum number of hops is 15. 109. Which is an advantage of dynamic routing protocols? 109. A. The benefits of a dynamic routing protocol is that it creates resiliency when routes become unavailable. It does this by recalculating the best route in the network around the outage. 110. Which type of routing technique allows for route summarization to be computed automatically by routers? 110. A. Most dynamic routing protocols will summarize routes. They do this for 111. Which routing technique requires administrator intervention when a route goes down? 111.
D. Static routing requires administrator intervention when a route goes down. 112. Which routing protocol broadcasts updates for routes? 112. A. The Routing Information Protocol version 1 (RIPv1)broadcasts updates for 113. What is an advantage of dynamic routing protocols? 113. B. Optimized route selection is a direct advantage of using dynamic routing 114. You have
several routes configured on a router. Which command will show only the static routes? 114. C. The show ip routes static command will display all of the routes that are configured as static routes. 115. Which routing technique is best suited for small networks in which the
administrator wants control of routing? 115. C. Static routing is best suited for small networks in which there is not a lot of change. It should be chosen when administrators want absolute control over the routing process. 116. Which protocol is a distance-vector protocol? 116. A. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a distance-vector routing protocol. 117. Which protocol is a true link-state protocol? 117. B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a true link-state protocol. Link-state protocols keep track of the state of the links as well as the bandwidth the link reports. 118. Which protocol is considered a hybrid protocol? 118. C. The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is a hybrid protocol. 119.
What is an attribute of distance-vector protocols? 119. B. Protocols such as RIP re-advertise routes learned. This can be problematic 120.
Which type of network are distance-vector protocols best suited for? 120. B. RIP, which is a distance-vector protocol, is best suited for networks containing 121. You have a network with varied bandwidths and need to choose a dynamic routing 121. C. EIGRP metrics are bandwidth, delay, load, reliability, and MTU, while RIP is a 122. Which problem could arise from use of a distance-vector routing protocol? 122. A. Routing loops are the most common problem when you're using a distance- 123. Which dynamic routing protocol uses the Dijkstra routing algorithm? 123. C. The Dijkstra algorithm is used by OSPF to calculate the shortest path based on 124. Why don't link-state protocols suffer from routing loops like distance-vector 124. A. Link-state protocols such as OSPF require all routers to maintain their own 125. Which dynamic routing protocol uses the Diffusing Update Algorithm as its routing
algorithm? 125. B. The Diffusing Update Algorithm, or DUAL, is used by EIGRP to calculate the 126. Which is a disadvantage of distance-vector routing protocols? 126. B. Slow convergence of routing tables is a major disadvantage for distance-vector 127. What is an advantage of a link-state dynamic routing protocol? 127. D. OSPF employs Link-State-Announcement (LSA) flooding and triggered 128. What type of network is best suited for a link-state routing protocol such as OSPF? 128. C. Link-state protocols, such as OSPF are best suited for large hierarchical 129. Which dynamic routing protocol uses the Bellman-Ford routing algorithm? 129. A. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) use the Bellman-Ford routing 130. Which is a design concept used to stop routing loops with
distance-vector dynamic routing protocols? 130. B. The use of holddown timers allows the convergence of the network routing 131.
Which is an exterior gateway routing protocol? 131. D. The Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is an exterior gateway routing protocol, 132. Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary interior gateway protocol? 132. C. Enhanced Interior Gateway
Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is a Cisco proprietary 133. Which statement is correct about interior gateway protocols (IGPs) vs. exterior gateway protocols (EGPs)? 133. C. Interior routing protocols are used internally inside of a network. The 134. How are routers managed with interior gateway
protocols? 134. A. Routers are grouped into the same autonomous system (AS). When they are 135. Which statement is correct about interior gateway protocols? 135. B. Interior gateway protocols function within an administrative domain. This administrative domain is defined with a common autonomous system number or area ID. 136. Why would you need to use an exterior gateway protocol? D. The only time you need to use an
exterior gateway protocol such as Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is when you have a dual-homed connection between two ISPs. An example of this would be routing between the Internet and Internet 2. You would need to know the fastest path to the destination network via the Internet 137. You need to use BGP to advertise routes. Which do you need to obtain before you 137. A. In order to use BGP to advertise a route, you must obtain an ASN, or autonomous system number, from IANA. 138. How are BGP routes calculated? 138. C. BGP uses the entire database of entries to calculate the entire autonomous system path to the destination. Then it routes the packet to the next router, which performs the same calculation using the shortest AS path or the least number of ASs the packet must traverse. Which is an example of an interior gateway protocol that is nonproprietary? B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is an interior gateway protocol and a nonproprietary standard. 140. You have several sites, each with different administrative units in your company. B. Although you have different administrative units, all of the administrative units are in the same
company. In this situation, it is recommended to use an interior gateway protocol that can segment each administrative unit. OSPF will perform this 141. Which command will allow you to verify the IPv6 addresses configured on a router? 141. C. The command show ipv6 interfaces brief will show all of the IPv6 addressesconfigured for each of the interfaces on the router. 142. On interface Serial 0/1, you type ipv6 address 2000:db8:4400:2300::1234/64 . 142. C. The network ID of 2000:0db8:4400:2300::/64 will be calculated and assigned to the directly connected route of Serial 0/0. 143. When you check the IPv6 addresses configured on the interfaces, you find two IPv6 addresses: One address is a 2001:db8::/64 address, and the
other is an ff80::/64 143. B. The second address on an interface with the
prefix of ff80::/64 is the link-local Which command will show you the IPv6 routes in the routing table? 144. A. The command show ipv6 route will display only the entries in the routing table for IPv6. The command show ip route will only display the entries in the routing table for IPv4. 146. Which command will only show you all of the directly connected routes for IPv6? 146. B. The command show ipv6 route connected will display only the directly connected routes on the router. 151. Which area must be present when using the OSPF routing protocol with multiple areas? 151. A. Area 0 must be present in an OSPF network. It is the backbone area and all other areas must connect to it. 153.
Which multicast address is used by OSPF for neighbor discovery? 153. B. OSPF uses 224.0.0.5 for neighbor discovery via Link-State Advertisements (LSAs). Which statement is true about OSPF? D. OSPF updates are event triggered. These events could be a neighbor router not responding or a route going down. 156. How do Cisco routers determine their router ID (RID)? 156. B. The highest IP address configured on all of the loopback interfaces is chosen first. If a loopback is not configured, then the highest IP address on an active interface is chosen. However, if a RID is statically set via the OSPF process, it will override all of the above. 157. What is the definition of an OSPF link? 157. C. A link is a routed interface that is assigned to a network and participates in the Which statement is correct about adjacency with OSPF on a broadcast network
(LAN)? B. Adjacencies are formed between the designated router (DR) and its neighbors 159. How is a designated router elected for OSPF? 159. D. The designated router is elected by the highest priority in the LAN. If the priorities are all the same, then the highest RID becomes the tiebreaker. OSPF will elect a DR for each broadcast network, such as a LAN. This is to minimize the number of adjacencies formed. 160. In which database can you see all of the routers discovered in the OSPF network in which hello packets were sent and
acknowledged? 160. B. The neighborship database is where all of the routers can be found that have responded to hello packets. The neighborship database contains all of the routers by RID, and each router participating in OSPF manages its own neighborship database. 161. Which is a correct
statement about OSPF? 161. C. OSPF uses areas to create a hierarchal structure for routing. This structure begins with the backbone area of 0. All other areas connect to it to form a complete autonomous system. This enables scalability with OSPF, since each area works independently. 162. Which is an example of a broadcast (multi-access) network? 162. D. A LAN is an example of a broadcast multi-access network. All nodes in a network segment can hear a broadcast and have common access to the local area network. In OSPF, a broadcast (multi-access) network requires a DR and BDR.
163. Which multicast address is used by OSPF for communication between the designated router and adjacencies formed? 163. C. The multicast address of 224.0.0.6 is used to communicate between the designated router and the adjacencies formed. This multicast address is used for LSA flooding on broadcast networks. What is the Cisco
metric for OSPF? Cisco uses a metric for OSPF which is calculated as 10 8 /bandwidth. This cost value is of 100 Mb/s (reference bandwidth) divided by the interface bandwidth. 165. What does the command router ospf 20 configure? 165. A. The command router ospf 20 configures a process ID of 20. This process identifies the databases for an OSPF process as well as its configuration. The process ID is only locally significant to the router on which it is configured. It can be an arbitrary number from 1 to 65535. 166. Which command will verify the bandwidth of an interface participating in
OSPF? 166. B. The command show interface will display the reported bandwidth or configured bandwidth of an interface. The command show ospf interface will only display the calculated cost. 167. Which command will tune the cost of the OSPF metrics for integration with non-Cisco routers to
participate in OSPF? 167. D. When you're configuring Cisco routers to participate in OSPF with non-Cisco routers, each interface on the Cisco router needs to be configured. The ip ospf cost command can be tuned between 1 to 65,535 and will need to be matched with the other vendor. 168. Which command will configure a network of 192.168.1.0/24 for OSPF area 0?
D. The first command sets up the process ID of 1 via router ospf 1 . The next 169. What is the default number of equal-cost routes for OSPF on Cisco routers? 169. A. By default, Cisco routes will load-balance four equal-cost routes with OSPF. 170. You want to advertise a network of 131.40.32.0/27 with OSPF. Which wildcard 170. C. The wildcard mask is 0.0.31.255 for a network advertisement of 131.40.32.0/27. 171. Which command will allow changing the number of equal-cost routes for OSPF? 171. D. The command maximum-paths 10 will configure a maximum of 10 routes of 172. What is the maximum number of equal-cost routes that can be configured for D. The maximum number of equal-cost routes that can be configured for load balancing with OSPF on a Cisco router is 32. 173. Which command will allow you to verify the router's RID for OSPF? 173. A. The command show ip ospf will allow you to verify the currently configured router ID (RID) or the IP address acting as the router's RID. ou want to advertise a network of 192.168.1.16/28 with OSPF. Which wildcard mask will you need to use? 174. C. The wildcard mask is 0.0.0.15 for a network advertisement of 192.168.1.16/28. A wildcard mask is a bitwise calculation that matches the bits that change. The /28 has subnets with multiples of 16. The easiest way to calculate wildcard masks for configuration is to subtract 1 from the subnet you are trying to match; for example, matching a subnet of 16 in the fourth octet minus 1 equals 15. 175. Which command will allow you to verify if a remote router has formed an adjacency with the current router? A. The command show ip ospf neighbor will show all of the adjacencies formed 176. What is the default OSPF hello interval in which hello packets are sent out on a broadcast (multi-access) network?
176. B. The default hello interval is 10 seconds for a broadcast (multi-access) network 177. You are running OSPF on a router. One of the interfaces, Gi0/1, connects to your ISP. You want to make sure you do not forward any OSPF packets to your ISP. How can you achieve this? 177. B. The command passive-interface gigabitethernet 0/1 must be configured 178. Which command will help verify which interfaces hello packets are being sent out for OSPF? 178. C. The command show ip ospf interface will show all interfaces in which OSPF is configured and sending hello packets. Which command will statically set the RID for OSPF and override all others?A. Router(config)#interface fa 0/1 179. D. Although all of these are valid methods of possibly setting the router ID (RID) 180. Which command(s) will only allow interface Gi0/2 to send hello packets
for 180. C. The command passive-interface default configured under the OSPF
process 181. After changing the router's RID for OSPF, which command needs to be entered? 181. A. After the OSPF configuration is changed, OSPF needs to be restarted. This is achieved at the privileged exec prompt by typing clear ip ospf . 182. Which statement about OSPF area border routers is correct? 182. D. Type 3 Link-State Advertisements contain summary information about the networks on the other side of the ABR. These LSA announcements are called Summary Link Advertisements, or SLAs. Which command will allow you to see the summary of OSPF Link-State Advertisements? 184. A. The command show ip ospf database will show you a summary count of all Two routers, called Router A and Router B, are configured in the same area and share a common LAN. However, they cannot form an adjacency. What could the problem be? C. The default hello interval on a LAN is 10 seconds. If a router is configured with 187. Which is a direct benefit of a
hierarchical OSPF design? 187. A. Fast convergence of the Link State Database (LSDB) that feeds the routing You have
configured a router with the following command. However, when you enter show ip routes you do not see any routes for OSPF. What is the problem? C. The wildcard mask is incorrect because it is a bitmask, which is the opposite
of 192. Which state in the neighbor table indicates that the router has successfully downloaded the LSA information from a neighboring router? A. The FULL state is only achieved after the router has created an adjacency witha neighbor router and downloaded the LSAs to form its topological database. 194. You have two links that enter the same OSPF router with the same bandwidth. You want to prefer one route over the other yet allow the second as a backup route. 194. C. The command ip ospf cost 25 should be configured on the interface that will act as the backup route. This adjustment of cost will allow the router to prefer the other route first. 197. Which command will display the designated router for a LAN? 197. A. The command show ip ospf interfaces will display the interface details of each interface for OSPF. In this information, the DR and BDR router ID will be displayed. In the following exhibit, you have one OSPF area and want to populate the default route to all routers in the OSPF area. Which command would you use? C. The command default-information originate will propagate a default route originating from router 172.16.1.1. All OSPF routers will calculate their default routes back to this router. 200. Which command will set
the bandwidth of an interface to 2.048 Mb/s? 200. A. Bandwidth is always specified in kilobits per second (Kb/s), so 2.048 Mb/s Which command will allow you to see the networks the current router
is advertising for OSPF? A. The command show ip protocols will list the router ID of the current router 203. Which statement is true of routers in the same area? 203. C. An area defines a topology inside of the OSPF hierarchy. Since each router in 204. Which
command would you use to make sure Router A never becomes a designated router? 204. D. All routers by default have an OSPF priority of 1. If you set the priority to 0, 205. You enter a show ip route command and see the following line. What does the [110/1] identify? A. Administrative distance of 110 and a 100 Mb/s link 205. A. It identifies the
administrative distance of 110 for OSPF. The cost calculation is Which command will start an OSPFv3 process with an ID of 4? C. The command ipv6 router ospf 4 will start an IPv6 process with an ID of 4.Most IPv6 commands will start with ipv6 . 207. Which IPv6 address does OSPFv3 use to communicate with designated routers? 207. A. OSPFv3 used the multicast address ff02::6 to send communications to 208. When configuring
OSPFv3, how do you configure the router ID? 208. C. When an OSPFv3 process is configured, the process will handle IPv6. 209. You are configuring an OSPFv3 process of 4 for an interface of Serial 0/0 with an IPv6 address of 2001:db8:1:2::1/64 in area 0. Which command will you use? 209. B. With OSPFv3 IPv6 configuration, the duplication of long IPv6
network 210. You have an interface of Serial 0/0, which is connected to your ISP. You want to suppress OSPFv3 LSAs on the IPv6 link to the ISP. Which command will you use? 210. A. Configuring OSPFv3 for a passive interface it is similar to configuring OSPFv2. You have a number of routers with 10 Gb/s and 1 Gb/s links running OSPFv3. You need to adjust the cost for all links on the router. Which command will allow you to achieve
this with the fewest commands? B. The easiest way to achieve this is to change the reference bandwidth from 100 212. Which IPv6 address does OSPFv3 use to send LSA hello packets? 212. B. OSPFv3 used the multicast address ff02::5 to send hello packets to neighbor 213. Which command will allow you to verify only
OSPFv3 routes? 213. D. The command show ipv6 route ospf will display only the OSPFv3 routes. 214. Which command would you use to verify that the hello/dead timers match for OSPFv3? 214. B. The command show ipv6 ospf interface will display numerous stats about 215. A common problem with IPv6 and OSPFv3 is MTU. Why is it a common problem with IPv6 and not IPv4? 215. B. IPv4 allows for packet fragmentation. However, IPv6 does not fragment 216. You need to configure OSPFv3 for the network 2001:db8:2:3/64 with an area of 0. Which configuration would
you use? 216. D. The configuration of OSPFv3 for IPv6 is always done on the interface. Area 0 ou begin to configure OSPFv3 but get the error % IPv6 routing not enabled. C. You must enable IPv6 routing via the command ipv6 unicast-routing in order 218. You have configured OSPFv3 with a process ID of 5. You want to view only the 218. B. The command show ipv6 ospf 5 will only show the OSPFv3 process ID of 5. 219. You have two routers that will not form an
OPSFv3 adjacency. You've identified 219. A. The hello interval timer is configured per the interface, since broadcast (multi-access) would apply to a LAN interface vs. a non-broadcast multiple access (NBMA) network interface. The command no ipv6 ospf hello-interval will set the hello timer back to the original default value. 220. After you configure a new router ID for an OSPFv3 process, which command 220. A. The command to restart the OSPFv3 process is performed at the privileged When configuring OSPFv3, what is an alternative to specifying a router ID? C. When you configure the command ipv6 ospf 1 area 0 on an IPv4 interface, 224. Which statement is correct about OSPFv3 vs. OSPFv2? 224. A. Unlike OSPFv2, OSPFv3 will advertise all of the networks that are configured Which dynamic routing protocol is a Cisco
proprietary routing protocol? D. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is a Cisco proprietary dynamic routing protocol. Only Cisco routers can participate in EIGRP. 227. By default, which metrics are used by EIGRP to calculate path cost? 227. A. EIGRP can use bandwidth, delay, load, reliability, and MTU as the cost metrics. 228. Which is a requirement for EIGRP routers to create a neighborship? 228. C. A requirement for routers to become neighbors is matching K metrics. The K 229. Which IPv4 multicast address is used by EIGRP? 229. C. The Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP), which is part of EIGRP, uses
224.0.0.10 230. What is the default formula for metric calculation for EIGRP? 230. A.
The default metric calculation for EIGRP is metric = ((107 / least-bandwidth) Which condition must be met for two routers participating in EIGRP to become B. A neighbor requirement is matching autonomous system numbers. The 232. What is the default hop count of EIGRP? 232. B. EIGRP has a default hop count of 100 hops before a packet is considered 233. What mechanism does EIGRP have for scalability? 233. D. EIGRP uses AS numbers to segment routing updates to an autonomous 234. How often are hello messages sent between EIGRP participating routers by 234. A. The default hello timer for EIGRP is 5 seconds. This is performed by RTP. 235. When does the EIGRP protocol advertise the entire database? 235. C. Upon forming an adjacency with its neighbor, EIGRP neighboring routers will What is the maximum stable hop count for EIGRP? . The default hop count is 100 for EIGRP. However, the maximum stable hop 237. Which table is used to feed information to the topology table with EIGRP? 237. A. Hello packets and the RTP table help to build the neighbor table. In return, the 238. Which mechanism does RTP use if an established neighbor does not respond to a 238. B. If an established neighbor does not respond to its multicast hello packet, therouter will send unicast packets. After 16 missed unicast packets, the neighbor will be 239. What happens when a hold interval for EIGRP has expired? 239. C. When the hold interval has expired and a hello message has not been seen, the 240. How many equal-cost links can EIGRP load-balance? 240. A. By default, EIGRP can load balance up to 4 equal-cost links. 241. Which routing algorithm does EIGRP use? ... Which routing algorithm does EIGRP use? 241. D. EIGRP uses the Diffusing Update Algorithm to calculate route cost. 242. After a router has been acknowledged, which table is built from the network routes discovered for the EIGRP protocol? B. After the neighbor process has been established, the routers will exchange full 243. A router has learned two routes to the same network. EIGRP has a route to the destination network with a cost of 202342520. OSPF has a route to the destination 243. B. The cost of the link between routing protocols is irrelevant. The administrative 244. What is the default hold interval for EIGRP? 244. B. The EIGRP hold interval by default is three times the hello interval. Since the 245. Which metric is considered to be infinite for an EIGRP route in which the router 245. D. EIGRP metrics are not based on hops. EIGRP metrics are based on bandwidth 246. Which statement is correct about EIGRP and how it works with updates? D. EIGRP only sends updates if a route has changed. Updates happen only after Which table is a router added to when it acknowledges a hello packet for EIGRP? A. When a router acknowledges a hello packet from a neighboring router, the 248. Which is a condition that must be met for a router to become a neighbor routerfor EIGRP? 248. B. Although two routers can have different hello/hold intervals, they could still 249. What is the definition of the reported distance for EIGRP? 249. B. The reported distance is the remote router's
calculated metric for the remote 250. Which route will be entered into the routing table from EIGRP calculation of 250. C. After DUAL calculates the metrics of the topology
table, a successor route is 251. Which table does EIGRP use to calculate the feasible distance of a remote route? 251.
B. The topology table is used to calculate the feasible distance of a remote Which command will create a routing process for EIGRP using an autonomous C. The command to configure EIGRP with an ASN of 20 is router eigrp 20 . 254. What is the default variance of EIGRP? 254. B. The default variance is a value of 1 by default. This is because the variance is a 255.
Which command will change the router ID of an EIGRP router? 255. B. The command eigrp router-id 2.2.2.2 configured in the sub-command of the router process will change the router ID to 2.2.2.2. 256. Which command should be
used when configuring networks with discontiguous 256. B. The command no auto-summary will stop the router process of EIGRP from 257. Which command will advertise the network 192.168.1.0/24 for an EIGRP ASN of 257. A. The command network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 will advertise the network of 192.168.1.0/24 for EIGRP with an ASN of 20. The .0.0.255 is a wildcard mask and matches bits in the last octet of the IP address. You need to verify the adjacent routers participating in EIGRP. Which command D. The command show ip eigrp neighbors will allow you
to inspect the routers 260. Which command will allow you to inspect the K metrics for EIGRP? 260. A. The command show ip protocols will allow you to see specifics about the 261. You need to suppress EIGRP hello advertisements on the interface connecting 261. C. The command passive-interface serial 0/0 configured inside the router 262. You want to confirm a Feasible-Successor route for EIGRP. Which command will 262. B. The command show ip eigrp topology will allow you to see the calculated 263. You have two paths you want to load-balance that have slightly
different delays. 263. B. The variance command is configured in the router instance of EIGRP. The
264. When is the command no passive-interface serial 0/0 used with EIGRP? 264. C. The command no passive-interface serial 0/0 is used when
either passive- Which mechanism in EIGRP allows for EIGRP to support multiple protocols? B. The protocol-dependent module (PDM) allows for multiple protocols to be supported with EIGRP. This allows for the same algorithm and methodology to be applied and for PDM-compliant modules such as IPv6, IP, and IPX to be used. 269. Two routers, Router A and Router B, will not form an adjacency with EIGRP. You discover that someone configured a custom K metric. Which command will configure 269. C. The command to configure the K metrics back to their default setting is no 270. Which command will allow you to verify the routes advertised by EIGRP? 270. A. The command show ip protocols will display the networks that are being 271. What is the IPv6 address for EIGRPv6 neighbor discovery? 271. C. The multicast address for neighbor discovery for EIGRPv6 is ff02::a. 272. Which command must be entered before EIGRPv6 can be configured? 272. C. The ipv6 unicast-routing command must be entered first to enable the IPv6 273. Which command must be entered to start the EIGRPv6 router instance? 273. A. The command no shutdown must be entered in the router instance to start 274. You have configured EIGRPv6 with an ASN of 10.
Which command will add 274. C. When configuring EIGRPv6 to avoid erroneous duplication of IPv6 addresses, 275. When configuring a router with EIGRPv6 and only IPv6 is configured on the 275. C. The command router-id 1.1.1.1 is required for EIGRPv6 operations. This You have configured EIGRPv6 on a router that also faces your Internet service provider. Which command should you use to restrict hello packets from being directed to the ISP? . The command to restrict hello packets from exiting the serial 0/0 interface is 277. You want to verify the K metrics that EIGRPv6 is using. Which command will display the K metrics? 277. D. The command show ipv6 protocols will display the routing protocols running 278. Which command will help you verify that a router has created an adjacency with
EIGRPv6? 278. D. The command show ipv6 eigrp neighbors will display the adjacencies the router has made with other EIGRPv6 routers. 279. Which command will show only the EIGRPv6 routes? 279. B. The command show ipv6 route eigrp will display only the EIGRPv6 routes. 280. You need to verify the interfaces that are participating in EIGRPv6. Which command will show this? 280. D. The command show ipv6 protocols will display the routing protocols forIPv6. Included in this output are the interfaces participating in EIGRPv6. 281. Which command will change the hello timer for EIGRPv6 ASN from 10 to 5 seconds? 281. D. The command ipv6 hello-interval eigrp 10 5 will change the hello timer. It must be entered in the interface on which you want to change the hello interval. 282. Which statement is true for EIGRP but not for EIGRPv6? 282. A. Interfaces for EIGRP must be on the same subnet for an adjacency to form. 283. You need to calculate a variance for EIGRPv6. Which table will allow you to 283. B. The command show ipv6 eigrp topology will allow you to verify the metrics. What is the maximum hop count for RIP? A. The maximum hop count for RIP is 15. A hop count over 15
hops is considered 287. Which statement is true about RIPv2 advertisements? 287. C. By default, RIPv2 multicasts the full routing table
on all active interfaces every 288. Which metric does RIPv2 use to calculate routes? 288. C. RIPv2 uses hop count to calculate routes. When a router sends its routing 289. Which multicast address does
RIPv2 use for advertising routes? 289. B. RIPv2 uses the multicast address of 224.0.0.9 to advertise routes. 290. When RIP is configured on a router, what must be configured to allow for 290. D. When you're configuring RIP on a router, the RIP process will default to 291. You need to configure the advertisement of the network 192.168.1.0/24 for RIPv2. 291. A. The command network 192.168.1.0 will configure the RIPv2 route process to 292. Which command will allow you to see the next advertisement interval for RIPv2?A. Router#show ip protocols 292. A. The command show ip protocols will display the next interval when RIPv2 293. Which command will allow you to inspect RIPv2 calculations for routes 293. B. The command show ip rip database will display all of the discovered routes 294. You have RIPv2 configured on an Internet-facing router. Which command will 294. D. The command default-information originate will advertise the default route 295. Which command will allow you to inspect RIPv2 advertisements? 295. D. The command debug ip rip will allow you to see advertisements in real time. 296. You need to advertise the routes of 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 296. B. The three Class C networks need to be advertised separately. RIPv2 uses the 297. You have RIPv2 configured on an Internet-facing router. Which command will 297. C. The command passive-interface serial 0/0 configured in the router 298. What is the default invalid timer for RIPv2? 298. C. The default invalid timer for RIP is 180 seconds. This holddown timer is six 299. Which is a problem with using RIPv2 in a network? 299. B. RIPv2 has extremely slow convergence time. This is because the
advertisement 300. Which technique is used to stop routing loops with RIPv2? 300. A. Split horizons are used to stop routing loops with RIPv2. Split horizons 301. Which algorithm does RIPv2 use to calculate routes? 301. C. RIPv2 uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to calculate its metrics. 302. Which command will need to be configured for support of discontinuous 302. D. The command no auto-summary will stop the router process of RIPv2 from 303. Which command configures RIPv2 on a router and
advertises a network of 303. B. Configuring RIPv2 begins with configuration of the router instance of RIP via 304. What is the purpose of the RIPv2 holddown timer? B. The holddown timer's job is to allow the network to stabilize after a route had 306. What is the default number of equal-cost routes RIPv2 will load balance? The default number of routes that RIPv2 will load balance is a total of 4. 307. Which protocol will support IPv6 for
RIP? 307. D. RIPng is the next generation of the RIP protocol for use with IPv6. 308. Which command will display which routes the RIPv2 router is advertising? 308. B. The command show ip rip database will display
the routes being advertised 309. How would you configure a router to use split horizons for RIPv2? 309. B. The command ip spilt-horizon configured on the
interface will configure Which command will allow you to check basic connectivity at layer 3? B. The ping command will allow basic connectivity testing at layer 3. 312. Which command will allow you to see
the path on which a packet gets routed to 312. D. The command traceroute will allow you to verify the path on which a packet 313. You perform a ping to a host on the network. However, the first packet is dropped. 313. C. The ARP request took time for the ARP reply, and during this time, the ICMPtimeout threshold was exceeded. This is common on a router, and the following pings 314. Which command on Windows will allow you to verify your IP address, subnet 314. C. The command ipconfig /all will help you verify the IP address, subnet mask,
315. Which command on Windows will allow you to verify the path a packet gets 315. A. The Windows command for tracing a route is tracert . You ping from a router to another router and receive back !!!!! . What does this B. When you see an exclamation mark, it means that the packets were 317. You want to ping a router on your network from interface Serial 0/0 and not the path
in the routing table. How can you achieve this? 317. C. The extended ping command allows you to specify a number of parameters 318. You perform a traceroute to a destination network and receive back several lines of output. On the end of each line are three parameters such as 1 192.168.1.1 20 318. C. The three times are the minimum response time, average response time, and 319. You need to make a Telnet connection to a remote router from a router you are 319. A. The IP address or hostname entered in privileged exec mode will create a direct 320. An administrator calls you and states that they believe an interface is down on a 320. D. The command show ip interface brief will display only the necessary 321. You need to ping an IPv6 address of
2001:db8:3:4::2. Which command will 321. A. The normal ping command will achieve this task. Originally in Windows XP, 322. Which IPv6 command will verify that you have received a Router Advertisement 322. A. The command show ipv6 neighbors will display all of the neighboring routers Other sets by this creatorCCNA - Practise Questions - WAN Technologies120 terms djdavin_z CCNA - Practise Questions - LAN Switching Technolo…241 terms djdavin_z Verified questionsother A blackout is: A. Passing out from drinking B. When people are unable to remember what they did while they were drinking C. Caused by an impairment of the liver D. Both A and B Verified answer
other Place to go in case of possible conflict Verified answer
other ___ roadways have separated lanes of traffic moving in opposite directions. Verified answer
other The four major parts of the communication process are the ___, the ___, the ___, and ___. Verified answer Other Quizlet setsMicrodermabrasion10 terms ammalshpeb94 Test90 terms BQUINTANA0 Audit Chapter 13: Auditing the Inventory Managemen…32 terms JWT245 R&R16 terms brad_judah How does a router determine where to send packets addressed to hosts on remote networks?When a router receives a packet, the router checks its routing table to determine if the destination address is for a system on one of it's attached networks or if the message must be forwarded through another router. It then sends the message to the next system in the path to the destination.
When a host sends a packet to a host on a different subnet the host sends the packet to which of the following?The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in a different subnet than the host. The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in a different class of IP network than the host. IPv4 hosts generally use basic two-branch logic.
What does the router use to determine whether it should send a packet to a computer associated with it?The router uses the information in the IP header to decide whether and where to forward each received packet, and which network interface to use to send the packet. Most packets are forwarded based on the packet's IP destination address, along with routing information held within the router in a routing table.
What happens when a router receives a packet for a network that isn't listed in the routing table?When a router receives a packet with a destination IP address which is not listed in its routing table, it will forward the packet to the default gateway. In most of the routers, there is a default gateway configured to handle situations like it.
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When a packet is determined remote from the network of the sending host what happens?
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