In general, +3 pitting edema is characterized by indentation of the skin to a depth of:

Which of the following statements regarding ascites is correct?

A. Ascites is a collection of fluid within the peritoneal cavity.

B. The abdomen of a patient with ascites has a sunken appearance.

C. The most common cause of ascites is an acute splenic injury.

D. Percussion of the abdomen will often yield hyperresonance.

A. Ascites is a collection of fluid within the peritoneal cavity.

At its worst, kyphosis can become a source of:

A. restrictive lung disease.

B. complete immobility.

C. pathologic fractures.

D. extremity paralysis.

A. restrictive lung disease.

The mnemonic “OPQRST” is a tool that:

A. allows the paramedic to reach a field diagnosis quickly and initiate treatment.

B. offers an easy-to-remember approach to analyzing a patient's chief complaint.

C. is used commonly to rule out conditions that are immediately life threatening.

D. is only effective when assessing a patient who is experiencing severe pain.

B. offers an easy-to-remember approach to analyzing a patient's chief complaint.

If a patient does not respond to a question within a couple of seconds, he or she:

A. may be deciding if he or she can trust you enough to answer the question.

B. should have the question repeated back to him or her using different terms.

C. must be assumed to have an altered mental status until proven otherwise.

D. should immediately be asked another question to facilitate gathering data.

A. may be deciding if he or she can trust you enough to answer the question.

Which of the following significant mechanisms of injury is unique to the infant and child?

A. Fall from greater than 10 ft

B. Ejection from a car's back seat

C. Penetrating injury to the head

D. Vehicle-pedestrian collision

A. Fall from greater than 10 ft

A pathologic fracture occurs when:

A. normal forces are applied to normal bone structures.

B. abnormal forces are applied to abnormal bone structures.

C. normal forces are applied to abnormal bone structures.

D. abnormal forces are applied to normal bone structures.

C. normal forces are applied to abnormal bone structures.

Blood pressure is the product of:

A. stroke volume and heart rate.

B. right atrial preload and ventricular stroke volume.

C. left ventricular ejection fraction and afterload.

D. cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance.

D. cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance.

When dealing with a patient who has multiple symptoms, the MOST effective way to develop an appropriate care plan is to:

A. prioritize the patient's complaints.

B. perform a complete head-to-toe exam.

C. assume that all complaints are linked.

D. address all complaints simultaneously.

A. prioritize the patient's complaints.

Situational depression is:

A. a condition that usually requires inpatient care.

B. often characterized by violent bouts of rage.

C. a reaction to a stressful event in a patient's life.

D. ongoing and does not appear to have a cause.

C. a reaction to a stressful event in a patient's life.

Abdominal guarding is MOST commonly encountered in patients with:

A. intra-abdominal bleeding.

B. chronic liver inflammation.

C. peritoneal irritation.

D. acute renal failure.

C. peritoneal irritation.

Serial vital signs:

A. provide comparative data regarding the patient's condition.

B. are of no value unless they are repeated every 5 minutes.

C. establish a baseline to which further vital signs are compared.

D. provide definitive information about the patient's problem.

A. provide comparative data regarding the patient's condition.

Which of the following reassessment findings is MOST significant in a patient with penetrating chest trauma?

A. Loud heart tones to auscultation

B. Blood pressure of 90/76 mm Hg

C. Symmetrical chest rise and fall

D. Heart rate of 78 beats per minute

B. Blood pressure of 90/76 mm Hg

Which of the following is the MOST practical method of assessing for gross neurologic deficits during your assessment of a patient?

A. Ask the patient to lift both legs and hold them up for 20 to 30 seconds.

B. Assess capillary refill time at the forehead and the fingernails and toenails.

C. Check deep tendon reflexes with a reflex hammer or similar object.

D. Ask the patient if he or she can feel and move his or her fingers and toes

D. Ask the patient if he or she can feel and move his or her fingers and toes

Which of the following clinical presentations warrants immediate transport?

A. Two days of vomiting; heart rate of 110 beats/min; warm, dry skin

B. 38 weeks gestation; crowning; history of hypertension; tachycardia

C. 250 mL external blood loss; systolic BP of 130 mm Hg; moderate pain

D. Chest discomfort; heart rate of 110 beats/min; systolic BP of 90 mm Hg

D. Chest discomfort; heart rate of 110 beats/min; systolic BP of 90 mm Hg

The fourth heart sound (S4):

A. is normal in 25% of the population.

B. indicates increased pressure in the atria.

C. represents increased left ventricular stretching.

D. occurs immediately before the S2 sound.

B. indicates increased pressure in the atria.

If a patient's trigeminal nerve is intact, he or she should be able to:

A. clench his or her jaw.

B. swallow without difficulty.

C. frown.

D. maintain balance.

A. clench his or her jaw.

The Babinski sign, grasping, and sucking are:

A. abnormal findings in infants.

B. voluntary motor responses.

C. examples of primitive reflexes.

D. signs of nervous system dysfunction.

C. examples of primitive reflexes.

An appropriately sized blood pressure cuff should:

A. cover at least two thirds of the patient's upper arm.

B. be one half to two thirds the size of the upper arm.

C. cover at least one third of the patient's upper arm.

D. completely encompass the entire upper arm.

B. be one half to two thirds the size of the upper arm.

A patient is generally considered to have orthostatic vital signs when:

A. the heart rate increases by 20 beats/min or more when going from a supine to a standing position.

B. the respiratory rate becomes fast and the depth becomes shallow when he or she suddenly stands up.

C. he or she experiences chest pain and a rapid, irregular heart rate when going from a seated to a standing position.

D. the systolic BP increases and the diastolic BP decreases when going from a lying to a sitting position.

A. the heart rate increases by 20 beats/min or more when going from a supine to a standing position.

When assessing a patient who is under the influence of alcohol, it is MOST important to remember that:

A. the amount of alcohol consumed is often overstated.

B. alcohol can mask any number of signs and symptoms.

C. suspicions of alcohol intoxication must be documented.

D. the patient often gives a reliable and accurate history.

B. alcohol can mask any number of signs and symptoms.

Bruising in the periumbilical area is indicative of:

A. a leaking aortic aneurysm.

B. a ruptured urinary bladder.

C. intraperitoneal hemorrhage.

D. ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

C. intraperitoneal hemorrhage.

Tidal volume is MOST effectively assessed by:

A. auscultating breath sounds.

B. noting the patient's respiratory rate.

C. looking for accessory muscle use.

D. observing for rise and fall of the chest.

D. observing for rise and fall of the chest.

Bulging of a child's anterior fontanelle is:

A. suggestive of significant dehydration.

B. pathologic when observed in a quiet child.

C. benign if the child is not flailing around.

D. suggestive of an intracerebral hemorrhage.

B. pathologic when observed in a quiet child.

The diameter of a patient's pupils and their reactivity to light provide information about the:

A. amount of vitreous humor.

B. intactness of the first cranial nerve.

C. status of cerebral perfusion.

D. level of carbon dioxide in the brain.

C. status of cerebral perfusion.

Distention of the jugular veins indicates:

A. a state of hypovolemia.

B. increased venous capacitance.

C. left-sided heart failure.

D. decreased venous pressure.

B. increased venous capacitance.

When auscultating heart sounds, you should place your stethoscope at the:

A. fifth intercostal space, over the apex of the heart.

B. second intercostal space, over the base of the heart.

C. sternal border at the second or third intercostal space.

D. third or fourth intercostal space, in the midaxillary line.

A. fifth intercostal space, over the apex of the heart.

When your patient is a non-English-speaking person, his or her child is often able to function as an interpreter because:

A. most children of non-English-speaking parents speak English.

B. the child is usually not as scared as his or her parent is.

C. children quickly absorb a new language in school.

D. you can usually teach a child English quickly

C. children quickly absorb a new language in school.